Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What is a good investment portfolio for someone starting in their 20s? 90% VT and 10% BND for a Roth IRA then 100% TDF for a 401k?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

Does anyone in the Middle East even understand the reasons for the continuous conflicts as the reasons were understood when the conflicts all started? Is it possible that everything began when two ancient shepherds were playing tricks on each other?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why did Meghan become a Hollywood actress before marrying into royalty? Was this against protocol and tradition for future royals who marry into the UK monarchy?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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